03-10-2011, 04:40 PM
A lot of the "christian cults" (Mormonism isn't the only one) rationalize their male members and leaders sleeping with more than one woman by saying it is God's will and pointing to Biblical polygamy as their "proof".
Did God tolerate polygamy in the Tanakh/OT, the way He tolerated divorce? Jacob had two wives and had kids with his maids, Moses had at least two wives, David had at least two and Solomon, 'nuff said. In Matthew 19:5 and Mark 10:7 Jesus reiterated Genesis 2:24 (practically verbatim) by saying that when a man and woman marry they become one flesh. The wife was created from the future husband's body, so I think that means God wants one man and one woman to marry. If it was God's ideal for marriage at the creation of humans, it stands to reason that it hasn't changed. How can a guy become "one flesh" with 300 wives and 700 concubines? In addition, American polygamists like to marry underage girls.
Did God tolerate polygamy in the Tanakh/OT, the way He tolerated divorce? Jacob had two wives and had kids with his maids, Moses had at least two wives, David had at least two and Solomon, 'nuff said. In Matthew 19:5 and Mark 10:7 Jesus reiterated Genesis 2:24 (practically verbatim) by saying that when a man and woman marry they become one flesh. The wife was created from the future husband's body, so I think that means God wants one man and one woman to marry. If it was God's ideal for marriage at the creation of humans, it stands to reason that it hasn't changed. How can a guy become "one flesh" with 300 wives and 700 concubines? In addition, American polygamists like to marry underage girls.


