What's the difference between Hebrew Roots and Messianic?
12-06-2011, 02:27 PM (This post was last modified: 12-06-2011 03:16 PM by Rose of Shushan.)
RE: What's the difference between Hebrew Roots and Messianic?
Quote:For one thing Yeshua said "Mat_15:24 But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.Sent to the House of Israel because they were the ones in a covenant with God at the time.But what did Jesus also say?
Joh 12:32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me.
He would draw all men.The prophets also spoke of this seemingly worldwide mission of the Servant.
Isa 42:1 Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.
Isa 42:4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
Isa 42:6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
Isa 42:7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
Isa 42:10 Sing unto the LORD a new song, and his praise from the end of the earth, ye that go down to the sea, and all that is therein; the isles, and the inhabitants thereof.
Isa 42:11 Let the wilderness and the cities thereof lift up their voice, the villages that Kedar doth inhabit: let the inhabitants of the rock sing, let them shout from the top of the mountains.
Isa 42:12 Let them give glory unto the LORD, and declare his praise in the islands.
Isa 49:5 And now, saith the LORD that formed me from the womb to be his servant, to bring Jacob again to him, Though Israel be not gathered, yet shall I be glorious in the eyes of the LORD, and my God shall be my strength.
Isa 49:6 And he said, [b]It is a light thing that thou shouldest be my servant to raise up the tribes of Jacob, and to restore the preserved of Israel: I will also give thee for a light to the Gentiles, that thou mayest be my salvation unto the end of the earth.
That is just in one chapter, there are many more.
We see that God's plan to include the Gentiles into His plan begins in earnest in the Book of Acts.How does the Book of Acts fit into your reasoning that Jesus only came for Israel? was Peter then wrong to heed God's commandment to go to Cornelius? Was Paul wrong in being an apostle to the Gentiles? Would you tell Paul that since Jesus said at a particular moment in time that He was sent to His people in fulfilment of the promises made to their Fathers, that he had no right to then obey God in what was the next stage of God's plan.
The same thing happens when people quote Jeremiah 32 and say that the New Covenant was promised only to the House of Israel..In Jeremiah 32 the prophet addresses the people that were in a covenant with God at the time.The covenant is made with Israel since they were in covenant but what Jeremiah omits,since he had no reason to elaborate further there, is that the Gentiles would also be able to enter into that New Covenant.As Paul says in Ephesians, gentiles become equal in footing to the descendants of Israel /Jacob.
Eph 2:19 Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
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