Jesus: Son of Joseph or Son of God?

[Ben Masada]

(03-07-2010 05:53 PM)Mary Wrote:  

[quote='sheep wrecked' pid='5493' dateline='1267998045']
[quote='Ben Masada' pid='5472' dateline='1267971188'

Quote:The Talmud was not written until 200 CE - 500 CE - it was known orally up to that point, but not written down until then. This is historical.

[quote]Judaism was not "advanced" at the first century. It was in the beginning sketches of it. The Pharisees eventually became the Rabbinical system after the fall of the Jerusalem in 70AD. The Talmud defines Judaism from around the middle ages. The Talmud also defines what the Sanhedrin did in the first century according to Judaism. According to history, the Sanhedrin judged on judicial and legislative cases under Roman authority in Jerusalem. The Sanhedrin dissolved soon after the destruction of Jerusalem [70AD] and was never again re-instituted.

Are you trying to teach Judaism to the Jew?

Quote:John 2:1 says nothing of the sort - it is not referring to Jesus' baptism.

Very good! What does John is referring to then? And why did he ignore the wilderness in the life of Jesus? Obviously, he would not be able to harmonize being tempted to change stones into bread with being tempted to change water into wine. Don't you think so?

Quote:Only Messianis say that Jesus confirmed the Law even to the dot of the letter per Matt 5:17-19. Christians know that Jesus fulfilled the old covenant aka "The Law/Torah.

Really! I did not know that Matthew was of the Messianics. Matthew is the one who says so. Are you contesting what he said? And regarding the New Covenant, of course Jesus fulfilled it. He was Jewish, and the New Covenant was made with the Jews. Read Jeremiah 31:31. The House of Israel and the House of Judah as one people did not include Gentiles.

Quote:]John the Jew, the beloved disciple of Jesus, did in fact write the Gospel of John. There is no "Greek mythology" in the book of John. Jesus was not a man that was God. This is where the mistake is made in understanding. God "manifested" Himself as a man, just as He did to Abraham [Gen 18].

I meant by Greek Mythology to preach about Jesus as the son of God. And to say that God manifested Himself in the flesh as a man is not much
of a difference. Besides, Ezekiel had already left very clear that God manisfests His glory in the sight of the nations through Israel, the Jewish
People. Jesus was but one of the People.

Quote:Everlasting life refers to dead and buried Jews?????? [/b]

You didn't read the quotations I gave above in Isaiah and Ezekiel. Let
us read together. According to Isaiah 53:8.9, the Land o Israel is considered the Land of the Living. When Jews are taken into exile, it is as if graves are assigned them among the Gentiles. The Metaphor, "The
Land of the Living," brings the same meaning of evelasting life. Then, when the exile is over, God opens those graves, with Jewish exiles, and
brings the People back to Israel or Land of the Living in a metaphorical resurrection. (Ezek. 37:12)

Quote:Psa 21:4 He asked life of thee, and thou gavest it him, even length of days for ever and ever.

Psa 22:26 The meek shall eat and be satisfied: they shall praise the LORD that seek him: your heart shall live for ever.

Psa 23:6 Surely goodness and mercy shall follow me all the days of my life: and I will dwell in the house of the LORD for ever.

Psa 37:18 The LORD knoweth the days of the upright: and their inheritance shall be for ever.

Psa 37:28 For the LORD loveth judgment, and forsaketh not his saints; they are preserved for ever: but the seed of the wicked shall be cut off.

Psa 41:12 And as for me, thou upholdest me in mine integrity, and settest me before thy face for ever.

[b]All expressions of eternity above are references to a full living of one's span of life in the Land of the Living, which is the Land of Israel.

Quote:John 2:1 is talking about the third day after the Jews sent priests and Levites to ask him (John the Baptist) who he was, not the third day after Jesus was baptised.

Nice try, but you haven't suceeded. Here is what happened: On the day John caught sight of Jesus coming toward him... Of course, it was for his turn to be immersed. (John 1:29) The first day afterwards, Jesus was recruiting disciples when two of the disciples of John followed him. (John 1:35) On the next day, or second after his immersion, he was leaving to Galilee. (John 1:43) Then, on the third day, he was celebrating
his wedding in Cana of the Galilee. (John 2:1) Am I wrong with my computation of the facts?