Does Jesus bring a new Torah with the New Covenant?
04-21-2011, 08:39 AM (This post was last modified: 04-21-2011 08:41 AM by Rose of Shushan.)
RE: Does Jesus bring a new Torah with the New Covenant?
Quote:So are we saying that the Law of Moses is done away with or are we saying something else?Yes I say that the Law of Moses is no longer binding.Law of Sinai was the old covenant, a shadow of the reality and sacrifices of animals. The New Covenant of Christ is the reality, it was His blood that was shed and sacrifices are spiritual.
Quote:I mention these two verses to help you see that Jesus doctrine was very much the Torah’s doctrine and nothing else. Did he elaborate on Torah to get people to see the intent? Yes, but he did not establish his own doctrine.
For one, the Talmud had not been invented yet but there was the tradition of the elders which is what you may have been really meaning to say.
The thing is there are times when Jesus calls them out for neglecting or even breaking Gods laws in favour of their traditions.However in many instances He overturns Moses Law altogether.
Mat 5:33 Again, ye have heard that it hath been said by them of old time, Thou shalt not forswear thyself, but shalt perform unto the Lord thine oaths:
Mat 5:34 But I say unto you, Swear not at all; neither by heaven; for it is God's throne:
Mat 5:35 Nor by the earth; for it is his footstool: neither by Jerusalem; for it is the city of the great King.
Mat 5:36 Neither shalt thou swear by thy head, because thou canst not make one hair white or black.
Mat 5:37 But let your communication be, Yea, yea; Nay, nay: for whatsoever is more than these cometh of evil.
Mat 5:38 Ye have heard that it hath been said, An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth:
Mat 5:39 But I say unto you, That ye resist not evil: but whosoever shall smite thee on thy right cheek, turn to him the other also.
Mat 5:40 And if any man will sue thee at the law, and take away thy coat, let him have thy cloke also.
Mat 5:41 And whosoever shall compel thee to go a mile, go with him twain.
Mat 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:
Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
Mat 19:7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Mat 19:8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
Mat 19:9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
The Old Covenant permitted divorce
Yet to us Christians divorce is only allowed in the case of fornication and whoever marries a divorced woman is also guilty of adultery.This was not so in the Old Covenant.
There is one place that we could say that Jesus was referring to tradition but if we look at the passage a bit closer we see that that is not the case
Mat 12:1 At that time Jesus went on the sabbath day through the corn; and his disciples were an hungred, and began to pluck the ears of corn, and to eat.
Mat 12:2 But when the Pharisees saw it, they said unto him, Behold, thy disciples do that which is not lawful to do upon the sabbath day.
Mat 12:3 But he said unto them, Have ye not read what David did, when he was an hungred, and they that were with him;
Mat 12:4 How he entered into the house of God, and did eat the shewbread, which was not lawful for him to eat, neither for them which were with him, but only for the priests?
Mat 12:5 Or have ye not read in the law, how that on the sabbath days the priests in the temple profane the sabbath, and are blameless?
There Christ could have said to them something that referred to their traditions but instead he gives an explanation of why He broke it(so to speak) and why He did not have to abide by that law or that it didn't apply to him.
In the first case Christ explains that David also transgressed the law at one time and why it was justified.Then Christ explains that just as the high priests appeared to break the law by working on the Sabbath since that service was mandated by God and was in service to God that they hadn't really transgressed anything.As Christ said the Sabbath was made for man,not man for the Sabbath.
Many messianics say that Jesus never broke the Torah well to that I say that although He appeared to break it the law didn't really apply to Him because being the Son of God and divine it does not really apply to Him in the sense that it would any other orfinary Israelite.Hope that makes sense :D
He came to bring salvation..a salvation that the Law of Moses could not give.The Law of Moses did not guarantee eternal life to anyone. Only Christ can give us that
Joh 3:14 And as Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, even so must the Son of man be lifted up:
Joh 3:15 That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal life.
Joh 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Joh 3:17 For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
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