Who is "All" Israel in the New Covenant?
06-22-2009, 03:19 AM
RE: Sacrifices Re-Instituted in the Third Temple
sheep wrecked Wrote:Could you please clarify this point. I am not understanding what this is in reference to. In others words, what do you mean by "us" and "we"?
Heb 10:9 Then said he, Lo, I come to do thy will, O God. He taketh away the first, that he may establish the second.
Heb 10:10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
If I understand the position held here, people believe everyone received freedom from law when the second covenant came into play. No one any longer is bound by the law. And they keep showing me proof texts where the authors are addressing believers and saying these things apply to "we" or "us". The author isn't saying all of mankind has been freed from law. No verse ever says that. They all have some personal pronoun in the passage that limits this freedom to the reborn. For instance, the "we" in Heb 10:10 refers to who were sanctified by through Christ's sacrifice.
1) to render or acknowledge, or to be venerable or hallow
2) to separate from profane things and dedicate to God
2a) consecrate things to God
2b) dedicate people to God
3) to purify
3a) to cleanse externally
3b) to purify by expiation: free from the guilt of sin
3c) to purify internally by renewing of the soul
Part of Speech: verb
A Related Word by Thayer’s/Strong’s Number: from G40
Citing in TDNT: 1:111, 14
Which of Israel's unsaved would fit any of the definitions of sanctified? I know of none. This passage does not pertained to those who do not accept Jesus. It is not proof that all of mankind was freed from law when Jesus was crucified. His sarifice was a universal invitation. But no change took effect for the individual that did not accept the invitation to eternal life and freedom from the bonds of the law. The law is ready to vanish because all have the opportunity for salvation. If all accepted Christ, judgment of our sins would not be required because Jesus paid that price. Judgment is a demand of law. There are two ways the law can finally vanish. Judgment demanded by law gets fulfilled or the need for judgment ceases because all have accepted the opportunity of salvation. The unsaved are not freed from law unless the become reborn into a new man not under the law.
sheep wrecked Wrote:Frank,
If you believe this is the point where God cast Israel off for good, will you answer some questions for me?
Why, in the very next chapter does Zechariah show the Lord delivering this very same nation? Is Zec 12 about Christ's 1st advent?
When, during Jesus' ministry did :
1] Jerusalem come under seige by surrounding nations [Zec 12:2]?
2] Jesus smites a bunch of horses and riders with madness [Zec 12:4]?
3] The governors of Judah devour all the people round about them [Zec 12:6]?
There's more but you get the point. Zec 12 isn't talking about Christ's 1st advent. So why does Zec show Israel being delivered after God has cast them off permantly as a bnation? Do you believe the chapters in this book are in the wrong order?
Look centuries into the future. How does Jesus fulfill a covenant of Law that no longer exists? I've been told the Law ended with the destruction of the temple. Why did Jesus attend a passover meal? It was a matter of long gone law.
And let's say we found verses that prove law ended then, or at the cross, or when the temple fell. How does that prevent Israel from inheriting the land? The law does not establish the inheritance. Gal 3:16-18 says if the law established the promise it would not be a promise. You could end the law the day it was delivered and the promise would still be sure.
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